Steve Hayes
2024-11-12 14:38:23 UTC
Tom Holland, in his book "Dominion: The Making of the Western Mind",
says:
By 1753, when the term "Middle Ages" first appeared in English,
Protestants had come to take for granted the existence of a distinct
period of history: one that ran from the dying years of the Roman
Empire to the Reformation.
Source: Holland 2019:381f
I had been under the impression that the concept of the Middle Ages,
or the Medieval (or Mediaeval) period, had developed earlier, during
the Renaissance. Does anyone have any evidence of the use of these
terms in English before 1753?
says:
By 1753, when the term "Middle Ages" first appeared in English,
Protestants had come to take for granted the existence of a distinct
period of history: one that ran from the dying years of the Roman
Empire to the Reformation.
Source: Holland 2019:381f
I had been under the impression that the concept of the Middle Ages,
or the Medieval (or Mediaeval) period, had developed earlier, during
the Renaissance. Does anyone have any evidence of the use of these
terms in English before 1753?
--
Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
Web: http://www.khanya.org.za/stevesig.htm
Blog: http://khanya.wordpress.com
E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk
Steve Hayes from Tshwane, South Africa
Web: http://www.khanya.org.za/stevesig.htm
Blog: http://khanya.wordpress.com
E-mail - see web page, or parse: shayes at dunelm full stop org full stop uk